Nursing Exam Question Series Part 2
Welcome you all in this blog you will get a update about upcoming nursing exams, they patterns type of questions may ask with explanations which helps you in preparing nursing competitive exams exams like all India institute of medical science, railway recruitment board, different State board nursing exams and much more
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1. The posterior pituitary is mainly consists of
(A) T cells
(B) C cells
(C) Neuronal projections
(D) Beta cells
2. Bell’s palsy is a disorder of the cranial nerve
(A) 9th
(B) 7th
(C) 5th
(D) 3rd
3. Which part of the brain control the body temperature ?
(A) Pons
(B) Amygdala
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Liver
4. The ‘Adam’s Apple’ is formed by
(A) Epiglottis
(B) Cricoid cartilage
(C) Thyroid cartilage
(D) Hyoid bone
5. Depolarizations in a nerve action potential is due to
(A) Opening of Potassium channels
(B) Opening of Sodium channels
(C) Opening of Calcium channels
(D) Closing of Sodium channels
6. flow rate of O2 via nasal cannula is
(A) 1- 4 liters/minute
(B) 1- 6 litters/minute
(C) 4- 6 litters/minute
(D) 6- 8 litters/minute
7. The size of intravenous cannula used for neonate is
(A) 24 gauze
(B) 22 gauze
(C) 20 gauze
(D) 18 gauze
8. which of the following is not a physician prescribed intervention?
(A) Drug administration
(B) Ordering diagnostic test
(C) Performing wound care
(D) Elevating an edematous limb
9. The practice of nursing is regulated by
(A) State nurse practice Act
(B) Institutional policies
(C) Federal guidelines & regulations
(D) International standards & Codes
10. Clinical death is also known as
(A) State nurse practice Act
(B) Institutional policies
(C) Federal guidelines & regulations
(D) International standards & Codes
Nursing Exam MCQ Test 2024
11. Kussmaul breathing is associated with
(A) Atelectasis
(B) Bronchial asthma
(C) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(D) Heart Failure
12. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called as out of the following?
(A) Hyperventilation
(B) Hypoventilation
(C) Orthopnea
(D) Cheyne-strokes respiration
13. What should be the size of the endotracheal tube for a newborn weighing 2 to 3 kgms.?
(A) 4.0
(B) 3.50
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.50
14. Clinical death is also known as
(A) Biological death
(B) Brain death
(C) Legal death
(D) Accidental death
15. Treatment of severe dehydration is
(A) Start DNS immediately
(B) Start colloids immediately
(C) Start Ringer’s Lactate immediately
(D) Combination of 5% dextrose with Ringer’s Lactate immediately
16. Common complication after perforation of appendix
(A) Hemorrhage
(B) Peritonitis
(C) PID
(D) Intestinal obstruction
17. Linear burrowing of a mite at finger webs, wrists, elbow, ankles and penis is seen in case of
(A) Scabies
(B) Impetigo
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Harper zoster
18. Deep vein thrombosis renders a person at a risk of which of the following
(A) Pulmonary embolism
(B) Shock
(C) Stroke
(D) Heart attack
19. CPR & defibrillation should be initiated in a kind of arrhythmia
(A) Atrioventricular block
(B) Premature Ventricular contraction
(C) Atrial fibrillation
(D) Ventricular fibrillation
20. Severe dyspnea, orthopnea, pallor, tachycardia and frothy blood tinged sputum is seen in following
(A) Left heart failure
(B) Right heart failure
(C) Pulmonary edema
(D) Congestive heart failure
Staff Nursing Test Series
21. An early sing of laryngeal cancer is
(A) Stomatitis
(B) Hoarseness
(C) Dysphagia
(D) Airway obstruction
22. Paradoxical respiration is most commonly seen in patient of..
(A) Flail chest
(B) Obstructive airway disease
(C) Cardiac tamponade
(D) Congestive heart failure
23. An early indication for development of hypocalcemia is
(A) Memory changes
(B) Tingling sensation in the fingers
(C) Ventricular dysrhythmias
(D) Depressed reflexes
24. what is the life span of human platelets is
(A) 10-12 minutes
(B) 10-12 hours
(C) 10-12 days
(D) 10-12 months
25. normal life span of human RBCs is
(A) 120 minutes
(B) 120 hours
(C) 120 days
(D) 120 months
26. The human blood cells are enucleated
(A) RBC
(B) WBC
(C) Platelets
(D) Both RBC & Platelets
27. A patient with liver fail having edema is most likely to receive
(A) Diuretics
(B) Laxatives
(C) Antidiuretics
(D) Beta blockers
28. The drug of choice for methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is
(A) Clindamycin
(B) Vancomycin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Gentamycin
52. the following antitubercular medication has the side effect of peripheral neuritis
(A) Pyrazinamide
(B) Isoniazid
(C) Rifampicin
(D) Ethambutol
53. A patient came to ED unconscious with pin point pupil, lacrimation and history of substance abuse. Which drug to be administered in ED is life saving for him/her?
(A) Naloxone
(B) Lorazepam
(C) Flumazenil
(D) Naltrexone
54. A patient with DVT is advised Low Molecular Heparin. At which site is most right?
(A) Oral
(B) IM
(C) IV
(D) SC
55. Which drug may cause ‘Gray-baby syndrome’ ?
(A) Chloramphenicol
(B) Gentamycin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Tetracycline
56. Which is not a side effect of salbutamol ?
(A) Muscle tremors
(B) Sedation
(C) Palpitation
(D) Nervousness